UPSC Prelims Analysis 2023 GS Paper I

Topic Wise UPSC Prelims Questions
Ancient History	Medieval History	Modern History
Polity	Economy	Environment
Geography	Science & Tech	International relations
Government Schemes	Miscellaneous

Ancient History Prelims Analysis 2023

1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
(a) Andhra
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kalinga
(d) Magadha

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) Andhra
Dhanyakataka was located in the Andhra region, and it became a prominent centre for the Mahasanghikas, contributing to Buddhist teachings and culture.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Andhra
- What is Andhra?
  Andhra is a historical region in South India, roughly corresponding to the modern-day state of Andhra Pradesh. It has a rich history of Buddhist activity, especially in the early centuries of the Common Era. Dhanyakataka, also known as Amaravati, was located in this region and became a flourishing centre for Buddhist art and learning.
- Why is it correct?
  Dhanyakataka was indeed located in Andhra. It served as an important hub for Mahasanghika Buddhism, which was one of the early schools of Buddhism. The region of Andhra, particularly Dhanyakataka, was known for its role in the spread of Mahayana Buddhism as well.
Option (b): Gandhara
- What is Gandhara?
  Gandhara was an ancient region located in modern-day Pakistan and Afghanistan. It was famous for its Greco-Buddhist art and was a key centre for Mahayana Buddhism, especially during the Kushan Empire.
- Why is it incorrect?
  Although Gandhara was a significant Buddhist centre, Dhanyakataka was not located here. Gandhara is associated more with Mahayana and the Gandhara art style, while Dhanyakataka is linked to the Mahasanghikas in Andhra.
Option (c): Kalinga
- What is Kalinga?
  Kalinga corresponds to the present-day coastal regions of Odisha and parts of Andhra Pradesh. It was historically significant, particularly after Emperor Ashoka's conquest of the region, which led him to embrace Buddhism.
- Why is it incorrect?
  Although Kalinga had a connection with Buddhism, Dhanyakataka was not located here. The Buddhist influence in Kalinga arose primarily after the Kalinga War, but it is not the location associated with the Mahasanghikas.
Option (d): Magadha
- What is Magadha?
  Magadha was a powerful ancient kingdom located in modern-day Bihar, India. It was one of the most important regions for the early development of Buddhism and Jainism. Cities like Bodh Gaya and Nalanda are located here.
- Why is it incorrect?
  Despite Magadha's profound historical connection to Buddhism, Dhanyakataka was not located in this region. Magadha was a centre for early Buddhism, but the Mahasanghika tradition was more prominent in regions like Andhra, specifically in Dhanyakataka.

2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
a. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
b. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

c. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Statements (b) and (c) are correct, while statement (a) is inaccurate because the concept of the stupa is not originally Buddhist.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Statement (a): The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin
- What is the concept of the Stupa?
  The stupa is a dome-shaped structure that serves as a place of meditation and a shrine for relics, especially in Buddhist tradition.
- Why is this statement partially correct?
  While stupas became prominent in Buddhist tradition, the idea of erecting mounds for burial or commemorative purposes predates Buddhism. Pre-Buddhist cultures in India also used burial mounds, but Buddhism gave the stupa its specific religious significance. Therefore, though Buddhism popularized the stupa as a sacred structure, its concept was not originally Buddhist.
- Conclusion: Incorrect (since the origin predates Buddhism).
Statement (b): Stupa was generally a repository of relics
- What is a stupa's role as a relic repository?
  A stupa often housed relics, such as the remains of the Buddha or other revered figures. These relics served as objects of veneration and made the stupa a focal point for devotion.
- Why is this statement correct?
  Most stupas, especially in early Buddhist history, were built to enshrine relics. For example, the famous Sanchi Stupa enshrined relics of the Buddha. Thus, this role as a repository is an accurate description of stupas.
- Conclusion: Correct.
Statement (c): Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition
- What is meant by votive and commemorative structure?
  A votive structure is one that is created as an offering or expression of gratitude, while a commemorative structure is built to honor a person or event.
- Why is this statement correct?
  In Buddhist tradition, stupas were erected as both votive structures (to gain merit or express devotion) and commemorative structures (in honor of the Buddha or important Buddhist events). They were central to the religious practice of pilgrimage and meditation.
- Conclusion: Correct

3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
(a) capital cities
(b) ports
(c) centers of iron-and-steel making
(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) ports
Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known ancient ports in South India that played a crucial role in maritime trade and the cultural exchange between India and other parts of the world.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): capital cities
- What are capital cities?
  Capital cities are the administrative or political centers of a region or kingdom, often serving as the seat of the ruler's court and government. In ancient South India, notable capital cities included Madurai for the Pandyas, Kanchipuram for the Pallavas, and Thanjavur for the Cholas.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri (also known as Muziris) were prominent locations in ancient South India, they were not capital cities. These places were primarily known for their significance in trade and commerce rather than administrative or political functions.
Option (b): ports
- What are ports?
  Ports are coastal locations where ships dock to load and unload goods and passengers. In ancient South India, several ports were established due to the region's strategic location along the Indian Ocean trade routes, enabling trade with the Roman Empire, Southeast Asia, and other parts of the world.
- Why is this option correct?
  Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were all prominent port towns in ancient South India:
  - Korkai was an ancient port city of the Pandyan kingdom, known for its pearl fishing and trade.
  - Poompuhar (also called Kaveripattinam) served as a major Chola port city and played a significant role in maritime trade.
  - Muchiri (Muziris) was an important port in Kerala, noted in Greek and Roman texts for its trade in spices, gemstones, and other luxury goods.
    These ports facilitated extensive overseas trade and cultural exchanges, making them critical to the economy and external relations of South Indian kingdoms.
Option (c): centers of iron-and-steel making
- What are centers of iron-and-steel making?
  These are places where iron and steel were produced and processed. Ancient South India had some regions known for metalworking, particularly in high-quality iron and steel production (e.g., Chera and Pandya regions).
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Although South India was known for its advanced metallurgy, especially the production of wootz steel, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were not primarily known as centers for iron-and-steel making. Their fame was largely due to their roles as bustling ports.
Option (d): shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
- What are shrines of Jain Tirthankaras?
  Jain shrines are temples dedicated to Tirthankaras, who are revered spiritual teachers in Jainism. These shrines are scattered across India and are known for their architectural beauty and religious importance.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were not prominent Jain religious centers or known for shrines dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras. Their historical significance lies in trade and commerce rather than as centers of Jain worship.

4. Which one of the following explains the practice of Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?
(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
The term Vattakirutal, as mentioned in Sangam literature, refers to a king committing ritual suicide by starving himself after being defeated in battle, reflecting the cultural values of honor and sacrifice during the Sangam era.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Kings employing women bodyguards
- What does this option describe?
  This describes a practice where women are employed as royal bodyguards to protect the king. Such practices, although not common, are noted in various ancient and medieval traditions across different cultures.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The practice of Vattakirutal in Sangam literature does not refer to the employment of women bodyguards. Sangam poems do not highlight this concept, making this option unrelated to the context of Vattakirutal.
Option (b): Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
- What does this option describe?
  This option refers to assemblies where scholars, poets, and religious figures gather in royal courts to engage in intellectual discussions. Such gatherings were common in many ancient and medieval societies, including the Sangam period.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Vattakirutal does not relate to scholarly or philosophical assemblies. It is not a term used in Sangam literature to denote gatherings of learned persons in royal courts, which makes this option incorrect.
Option (c): Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
- What does this option describe?
  This describes a practice in which young girls would guard crops, keeping animals and birds away to protect the yield. While such practices were common in agrarian societies, especially in South India, it is not connected to Vattakirutal.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Although Sangam literature mentions agricultural activities and roles of women, Vattakirutal is not associated with guarding fields. Thus, this option is not the correct explanation.
Option (d): A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
- What does this option describe?
  This describes a practice where a king, after facing defeat in battle, chooses to end his life by fasting to death. This form of ritual suicide was seen as a means for a defeated king to preserve his honor and dignity, even in the face of failure.
- Why is this option correct?
  Vattakirutal is a term found in Sangam literature that specifically refers to the practice of a defeated king committing ritual suicide by starvation. It was considered an honorable way for a king to atone for his failure and avoid the humiliation of defeat. The term directly corresponds to this practice, making it the correct answer.

5. Consider the following dynasties:
a. Hoysala
b. Gahadavala
c. Kakatiya
d. Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) None
None of the given dynasties—Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, or Yadava—established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD. All these dynasties rose to prominence later, starting from the 10th century AD onwards.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- Analysis of each dynasty:
  - Hoysala: The Hoysalas established their rule in the 10th century AD in the Karnataka region. They rose to prominence much later than the early eighth century.
  - Gahadavala: The Gahadavala dynasty rose to prominence in the late 11th century AD in the present-day Uttar Pradesh region. They were not active in the early eighth century.
  - Kakatiya: The Kakatiya dynasty began as a feudatory of the Chalukyas in the 10th century AD and established their independent kingdom in the 12th century AD. They did not establish their kingdom in the early eighth century.
  - Yadava: The Yadava dynasty established its independent rule around the 12th century AD in the Maharashtra region. They, too, were not active in the early eighth century.
- Why this option is incorrect?
  None of the dynasties listed were established in the early eighth century, so selecting "Only one" as the answer is incorrect.
Option (b): Only two
- Analysis of each dynasty:
  Since all four dynasties emerged much later than the early eighth century, choosing this option would also be inaccurate.
- Why this option is incorrect?
  There is no combination of two dynasties from the list that fits the criteria of being established in the early eighth century.
Option (c): Only three
- Analysis of each dynasty:
  Similar to the previous options, no three dynasties from the given list were established in the early eighth century.
- Why this option is incorrect?
  Since all four dynasties rose to prominence later, this option is also incorrect.
Option (d): None
- Why this option is correct?
  None of the dynasties listed (Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, and Yadava) established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD. All of them emerged as significant powers much later, in the 10th to 12th centuries AD.

6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

	Literary work	Author
a	Devichandragupta	Bilhana
b	Hammira-Mahakavya	Nayachandra Suri
c	Milinda-panha	Nagarjuna
d	Nitivakyamrita	Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Only pairs (b) and (d) are correctly matched. Hammira-Mahakavya was authored by Nayachandra Suri, and Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri. The other pairs are incorrect, as Devichandragupta was written by Vishakhadatta, and Milinda-panha is attributed to an unknown author.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Pair (a): Devichandragupta – Bilhana
- What is Devichandragupta?
  Devichandragupta is a historical drama that narrates the story of Chandragupta II’s rise to power by overthrowing his elder brother, Ramagupta.
- Who is Bilhana?
  Bilhana was a famous Sanskrit poet known for his work Vikramankadeva Charita, which glorifies the Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI.
- Why is this pair incorrect?
  Devichandragupta is attributed to Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana. Thus, this pair is not correctly matched.
Pair (b): Hammira-Mahakavya – Nayachandra Suri
- What is Hammira-Mahakavya?
  Hammira-Mahakavya is a poetic work that details the life of Hammira, a ruler of the Chauhan dynasty.
- Who is Nayachandra Suri?
  Nayachandra Suri was a Jain scholar and poet who authored Hammira-Mahakavya to celebrate the valor and defeat of the Chauhan king Hammira against Alauddin Khilji.
- Why is this pair correct?
  This pair is correctly matched because Hammira-Mahakavya was indeed written by Nayachandra Suri.
Pair (c): Milinda-panha – Nagarjuna
- What is Milinda-panha?
  Milinda-panha (The Questions of King Milinda) is a Pali text that records the dialogues between Indo-Greek King Menander (Milinda) and the Buddhist sage Nagasena.
- Who is Nagarjuna?
  Nagarjuna was a renowned Buddhist philosopher and founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism.
- Why is this pair incorrect?
  Milinda-panha is not authored by Nagarjuna but by an unknown author, who compiled the dialogues between King Milinda and Nagasena. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.
Pair (d): Nitivakyamrita – Somadeva Suri
- What is Nitivakyamrita?
  Nitivakyamrita is a Sanskrit work on polity and ethics that offers guidance on statecraft and governance.
- Who is Somadeva Suri?
  Somadeva Suri was a Jain scholar and poet known for his works like Nitivakyamrita and Yashastilaka.
- Why is this pair correct?
  This pair is correctly matched because Somadeva Suri is indeed the author of Nitivakyamrita.

7. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.” The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Jainism
The statement reflects the core belief of Jainism, which holds that souls exist not only in living beings but also in inanimate objects like rocks, water, and other natural elements. This perspective is central to the Jain principle of ahimsa (non-violence) and is unique to Jain philosophical thought.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Buddhism
- What is Buddhism’s view on souls and life?
  Buddhism, founded by Siddhartha Gautama (the Buddha), does not believe in a permanent or eternal soul (anatman). Instead, it emphasizes the concept of anatta (no-self) and the transience of all beings. While Buddhism shows respect for all life forms, it does not attribute souls to inanimate objects like rocks and water.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The statement in the question refers to the belief that inanimate objects have souls, which contradicts the Buddhist understanding. Therefore, this option does not reflect the belief stated.
Option (b): Jainism
- What is Jainism’s view on souls?
  Jainism, founded by Mahavira, teaches that jiva (soul) is present not only in animals and plants but also in inanimate objects such as rocks, water, fire, and air. This belief is part of Jainism’s concept of ajiva (non-living matter) being intertwined with jiva (living soul). Jains categorize these non-living entities as possessing a subtle form of life or consciousness. Thus, they practice extreme non-violence (ahimsa) towards all forms of existence, animate or inanimate.
- Why is this option correct?
  The statement in the question directly aligns with the Jain doctrine that souls are present not only in living beings but also in non-living things like rocks, water, and other natural elements. This makes Jainism the correct answer.
Option (c): Shaivism
- What is Shaivism’s view on souls and life?
  Shaivism, a sect of Hinduism, worships Lord Shiva as the Supreme Being. While it acknowledges the presence of the divine in all beings and the universe, it does not hold the belief that inanimate objects like rocks and water possess individual souls. Shaivism focuses more on the union of the individual soul (atman) with the universal soul (Brahman).
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The idea of attributing souls to inanimate objects is not a core belief of Shaivism, making this option incorrect in the context of the question.
Option (d): Vaishnavism
- What is Vaishnavism’s view on souls and life?
  Vaishnavism, another sect of Hinduism, worships Vishnu as the Supreme Being. Similar to Shaivism, it emphasizes devotion (bhakti) to the deity and the soul’s journey towards moksha (liberation). Vaishnavism does not ascribe souls to non-living entities like rocks or water, focusing instead on the soul’s relationship with Vishnu.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Vaishnavism does not share the belief in the presence of souls in inanimate objects as described in the question. Therefore, it does not fit the description provided.

8. Consider the following pairs:

	Site	Well Known For
a	Besnagar	Shaivite cave shrine
b	Bhaja	Buddhist cave shrine
c	Sittanawasal	Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Only pairs (b) and (c) are correctly matched. Bhaja is well known for its Buddhist cave shrine, and Sittanawasal is known for its Jain cave shrine. However, Besnagar is not associated with a Shaivite cave shrine but with the Heliodorus Pillar, making pair (a) incorrect.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Pair (a): Besnagar – Shaivite cave shrine
- What is Besnagar known for?
  Besnagar, located in Madhya Pradesh, is an ancient site famous for the Heliodorus Pillar, erected by Heliodorus, a Greek ambassador. The pillar is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is associated with Vaishnavism, not Shaivism. There is no significant Shaivite cave shrine at Besnagar.
- Why is this pair incorrect?
  Since Besnagar is not known for a Shaivite cave shrine but for the Heliodorus Pillar associated with Vaishnavism, this pair is not correctly matched.
Pair (b): Bhaja – Buddhist cave shrine
- What is Bhaja known for?
  Bhaja, located near Lonavala in Maharashtra, is well known for its group of 22 rock-cut caves that date back to the 2nd century BC. These caves are Buddhist chaityas (prayer halls) and viharas (monasteries), showcasing early Buddhist rock-cut architecture.
- Why is this pair correct?
  Bhaja is indeed famous for its Buddhist cave shrines, making this pair correctly matched.
Pair (c): Sittanawasal – Jain cave shrine
- What is Sittanawasal known for?
  Sittanawasal, located in Tamil Nadu, is an ancient Jain cave complex. The site is renowned for its beautiful rock-cut cave temples and murals depicting Jain themes, such as Jain monks and lotus ponds. These caves serve as Jain shrines and bear evidence of the early influence of Jainism in the region.
- Why is this pair correct?
  Sittanawasal is rightly known for its Jain cave shrine and murals, making this pair correctly matched.

Medieval History Prelims Analysis 2023

9. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and canalcum- aqueduct several a kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
a) Devaraya I
(b) Mallikarjuna
(c) Vira Vijaya
(d) Virupaksha

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) Devaraya I
Devaraya I of the Vijayanagara Empire is credited with constructing a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and an extensive canal-cum-aqueduct system. This engineering marvel ensured a steady water supply to the capital city and facilitated agricultural development, reflecting his contributions to the empire’s prosperity and infrastructure.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Devaraya I
- Who was Devaraya I?
  Devaraya I was a prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire who ruled from 1406 to 1422 AD. He is known for his administrative and military reforms and also for encouraging irrigation projects to support agriculture and the capital city of Vijayanagara.
- Why is this option correct?
  Devaraya I constructed a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and built an extensive canal-cum-aqueduct system that supplied water to the capital city. The dam and canal facilitated agricultural development and supported the city’s water needs, making this option the correct answer.
Option (b): Mallikarjuna
- Who was Mallikarjuna?
  Mallikarjuna was a Vijayanagara ruler from the Sangama dynasty who reigned from 1446 to 1465 AD. His rule is generally marked by internal strife and decline in the empire’s power.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Mallikarjuna did not undertake any major irrigation or construction projects like building dams or canals. His reign is not associated with such engineering feats, making this option incorrect.
Option (c): Vira Vijaya
- Who was Vira Vijaya?
  Vira Vijaya was a lesser-known ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire. There are no significant records or achievements attributed to him, particularly in terms of engineering or large-scale irrigation projects.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Vira Vijaya is not historically linked to the construction of the dam or canal across the Tungabhadra River. Thus, this option does not fit the context of the question.
Option (d): Virupaksha
- Who was Virupaksha?
  Virupaksha Raya II was another ruler of the Sangama dynasty, who ruled in the late 15th century. His reign is often considered weak, and it did not witness significant construction or engineering activities.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Like Mallikarjuna, Virupaksha was not involved in any major construction projects, especially not the dam and canal across the Tungabhadra River. Therefore, this option is not accurate.

Modern History Prelims Analysis 2023

10. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Mahmud Begarha
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah

Answer

Correct Answer: (c) Bahadur Shah
Bahadur Shah of the Gujarat Sultanate surrendered Diu to the Portuguese in 1535. His capitulation was a pivotal moment in the establishment of Portuguese power in the region, illustrating the complexities of colonial interactions during that period.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Ahmad Shah
- Who was Ahmad Shah?
  Ahmad Shah I was the ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate from 1411 to 1442 AD. He is known for his administrative reforms and for founding the city of Ahmedabad, but he did not face the Portuguese threat during his reign.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Ahmad Shah was not involved in the surrender of Diu to the Portuguese, as this event occurred much later in the timeline of Gujarat’s history. Therefore, this option is not correct.
Option (b): Mahmud Begarha
- Who was Mahmud Begarha?
  Mahmud Begarha was a notable ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate who reigned from 1458 to 1511 AD. He is known for his military campaigns and for strengthening the Sultanate, but he was ultimately unable to prevent the Portuguese expansion.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While Mahmud Begarha resisted Portuguese influence during his reign, he did not surrender Diu. In fact, he took significant measures against the Portuguese. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (c): Bahadur Shah
- Who was Bahadur Shah?
  Bahadur Shah was the Sultan of Gujarat who ruled from 1526 to 1537 AD. He faced challenges from the Portuguese, who sought to establish control over trade routes. In 1535, he was pressured into surrendering Diu to the Portuguese in a deal that included the recognition of his rule.
- Why is this option correct?
  Bahadur Shah's surrender of Diu to the Portuguese is a well-documented event in history, making this option the correct answer.
Option (d): Muhammad Shah
- Who was Muhammad Shah?
  Muhammad Shah was the ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate who reigned from 1537 to 1543 AD. His reign came after Bahadur Shah, and he faced further issues with the Portuguese but was not the ruler who surrendered Diu.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Muhammad Shah did not surrender Diu; this event had already occurred under Bahadur Shah. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

11. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) archaeological excavations
Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were all associated with archaeological excavations in India, contributing significantly to the understanding of Indian history and culture through their studies and discoveries.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): archaeological excavations
- What are archaeological excavations?
  Archaeological excavations involve the systematic uncovering of artifacts, structures, and other physical remains from past cultures. This practice is essential for understanding historical civilizations and their contributions.
- Why is this option correct?
  Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were all prominent figures in the field of archaeology in India. They contributed to significant excavations and studies, particularly in places like the ancient city of Madurai and the archaeological remains at various historical sites. Therefore, this option is correct.
Option (b): establishment of English Press in Colonial India
- What was the English Press in Colonial India?
  The English Press refers to the print media established during the colonial period, which played a crucial role in disseminating information, literature, and political discourse.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The individuals mentioned were not known for their contributions to the English Press; rather, their focus was primarily on archaeological studies. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (c): establishment of Churches in Princely States
- What does establishment of Churches in Princely States mean?
  This refers to the construction and establishment of Christian churches and missions within the various princely states of India during the colonial era, often associated with missionary work.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The figures listed were not directly involved in establishing churches; their contributions were mainly archaeological rather than religious or missionary. Thus, this option is also incorrect.
Option (d): construction of railways in Colonial India
- What is the significance of railways in Colonial India?
  Railways played a significant role in connecting various parts of India, facilitating trade, and enhancing colonial administration.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The individuals mentioned did not contribute to railway construction; that was primarily the work of engineers and government officials focused on infrastructure development. Hence, this option is incorrect as well.

12. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) The Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, marking a significant step in consolidating British administrative power in India.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): The Regulating Act
- What is the Regulating Act?
  Enacted in 1773, the Regulating Act was the first attempt to regulate the affairs of the British East India Company in India. It established a framework for governance, introduced a Governor-General, and aimed to address administrative issues. However, it did not designate the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While the Regulating Act laid the groundwork for British administration in India, it did not confer the title of Governor-General of India to the Governor-General of Bengal. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Option (b): The Pitt's India Act
- What is the Pitt's India Act?
  Passed in 1784, this Act aimed to reform the governance of the East India Company and enhance parliamentary control over it. It established a Board of Control for overseeing Company affairs but did not change the title of the Governor-General.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The Pitt's India Act did not designate the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India; it primarily focused on governance reforms without altering the title. Thus, this option is also incorrect.
Option (c): The Charter Act of 1793
- What is the Charter Act of 1793?
  This Act renewed the East India Company's charter for another 20 years and made some administrative changes, but it did not elevate the status of the Governor-General.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The Charter Act of 1793 did not designate the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, making this option incorrect as well.
Option (d): The Charter Act of 1833
- What is the Charter Act of 1833?
  This Act is significant because it designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, thereby centralizing power in the hands of the Governor-General and further consolidating British control over India.
- Why is this option correct?
  The Charter Act of 1833 explicitly granted the title of Governor-General of India to the existing Governor-General of Bengal, thus making this option the correct answer.

13. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Both statements accurately reflect important historical facts, but the Swadeshi Movement's initiation does not directly explain the establishment of National Handloom Day on August 7.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
- What is National Handloom Day?
  National Handloom Day is celebrated in India to promote and preserve the handloom industry, which is a vital part of Indian heritage and culture. It was first observed on August 7, 2015.
- Is this statement correct?
  Yes, this statement is correct. National Handloom Day is officially celebrated on August 7 every year.
Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
- What is the Swadeshi Movement?
  The Swadeshi Movement was a significant political movement that aimed to promote Indian goods and boycott British products. It was indeed launched in 1905, specifically on August 7, as a response to the partition of Bengal.
- Is this statement correct?
  Yes, this statement is also correct. The Swadeshi Movement was indeed initiated on August 7, 1905.

Polity Prelims Analysis 2023

14. In essence, what does Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) The procedure established by law
"Due Process of Law" fundamentally means that legal proceedings must follow established laws and procedures, ensuring fair treatment under the law for all individuals.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): The principle of natural justice
- What is the principle of natural justice?
  This principle refers to the legal philosophy that emphasizes fairness in legal proceedings. It includes two main components: the right to a fair hearing (audi alteram partem) and the rule against bias (nemo judex in causa sua).
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While natural justice is related to fairness in legal processes, "Due Process of Law" encompasses a broader framework that includes the procedures and rights guaranteed by law, making this option not entirely correct.
Option (b): The procedure established by law
- What does the procedure established by law mean?
  This phrase signifies that laws must be followed in legal proceedings, ensuring that individuals are treated according to established legal rules. It emphasizes that legal processes must adhere to formal laws rather than arbitrary actions.
- Why is this option correct?
  "Due Process of Law" fundamentally means that the law must be followed in a fair and consistent manner. It ensures that individuals receive a legal process that is grounded in law, thus making this option the correct answer.
Option (c): Fair application of law
- What does fair application of law refer to?
  This phrase suggests that laws should be applied impartially and without bias to all individuals. It implies justice and equity in the enforcement of laws.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While fair application is a component of due process, "Due Process of Law" encompasses more than just fairness in application; it includes procedural safeguards and rights established by law, making this option not wholly accurate.
Option (d): Equality before law
- What does equality before law mean?
  This principle states that every individual, regardless of status, is subject to the same laws and will receive the same legal protections and consequences.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Equality before the law is a significant legal principle but does not encompass the full scope of "Due Process of Law," which includes procedural aspects as well. Therefore, this option does not adequately define due process.

15. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment is widely believed to have been enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights, limiting the judiciary's role in reviewing legislative actions during the Emergency period.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): 1st Amendment
- What is the 1st Amendment?
  Enacted in 1951, the 1st Amendment was introduced to address various issues raised by the Supreme Court regarding the interpretation of Fundamental Rights, particularly concerning property rights and freedom of speech. It added restrictions to the rights under Article 19 and allowed for the imposition of reasonable restrictions by law.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While the 1st Amendment did modify certain aspects of Fundamental Rights, it was not as sweeping in scope as some of the later amendments and is not primarily regarded as a measure specifically aimed at overcoming judicial interpretations.
Option (b): 42nd Amendment
- What is the 42nd Amendment?
  Enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period, the 42nd Amendment is often called the "Mini Constitution." It made extensive changes to the Constitution, including altering the preamble, expanding the scope of Fundamental Duties, and limiting judicial review over certain amendments.
- Why is this option correct?
  The 42nd Amendment is widely viewed as an attempt to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights by introducing provisions that restricted the powers of the judiciary. It sought to minimize the courts' ability to interfere with legislative actions, particularly those related to Fundamental Rights.
Option (c): 44th Amendment
- What is the 44th Amendment?
  Enacted in 1978, the 44th Amendment sought to undo some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment, restoring certain judicial powers and civil liberties that were curtailed during the Emergency.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The 44th Amendment was aimed at restoring and strengthening judicial review rather than overcoming judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. Thus, this option does not apply.
Option (d): 86th Amendment
- What is the 86th Amendment?
  Enacted in 2002, the 86th Amendment introduced Article 21A, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This amendment primarily focuses on the right to education and does not address issues related to overcoming judicial interpretations of the existing Fundamental Rights. Therefore, this option is not relevant.

16. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): 1st Amendment
- What is the 1st Amendment?
  Enacted in 1951, the 1st Amendment was introduced to address various issues raised by the Supreme Court regarding the interpretation of Fundamental Rights, particularly concerning property rights and freedom of speech. It added restrictions to the rights under Article 19 and allowed for the imposition of reasonable restrictions by law.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While the 1st Amendment did modify certain aspects of Fundamental Rights, it was not as sweeping in scope as some of the later amendments and is not primarily regarded as a measure specifically aimed at overcoming judicial interpretations.
Option (b): 42nd Amendment
- What is the 42nd Amendment?
  Enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period, the 42nd Amendment is often called the "Mini Constitution." It made extensive changes to the Constitution, including altering the preamble, expanding the scope of Fundamental Duties, and limiting judicial review over certain amendments.
- Why is this option correct?
  The 42nd Amendment is widely viewed as an attempt to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights by introducing provisions that restricted the powers of the judiciary. It sought to minimize the courts' ability to interfere with legislative actions, particularly those related to Fundamental Rights.
Option (c): 44th Amendment
- What is the 44th Amendment?
  Enacted in 1978, the 44th Amendment sought to undo some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment, restoring certain judicial powers and civil liberties that were curtailed during the Emergency.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The 44th Amendment was aimed at restoring and strengthening judicial review rather than overcoming judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. Thus, this option does not apply.
Option (d): 86th Amendment
- What is the 86th Amendment?
  Enacted in 2002, the 86th Amendment introduced Article 21A, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This amendment primarily focuses on the right to education and does not address issues related to overcoming judicial interpretations of the existing Fundamental Rights. Therefore, this option is not relevant.

17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): 1st Amendment
- What is the 1st Amendment?
  Enacted in 1951, the 1st Amendment was introduced to address various issues raised by the Supreme Court regarding the interpretation of Fundamental Rights, particularly concerning property rights and freedom of speech. It added restrictions to the rights under Article 19 and allowed for the imposition of reasonable restrictions by law.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While the 1st Amendment did modify certain aspects of Fundamental Rights, it was not as sweeping in scope as some of the later amendments and is not primarily regarded as a measure specifically aimed at overcoming judicial interpretations.
Option (b): 42nd Amendment
- What is the 42nd Amendment?
  Enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period, the 42nd Amendment is often called the "Mini Constitution." It made extensive changes to the Constitution, including altering the preamble, expanding the scope of Fundamental Duties, and limiting judicial review over certain amendments.
- Why is this option correct?
  The 42nd Amendment is widely viewed as an attempt to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights by introducing provisions that restricted the powers of the judiciary. It sought to minimize the courts' ability to interfere with legislative actions, particularly those related to Fundamental Rights.
Option (c): 44th Amendment
- What is the 44th Amendment?
  Enacted in 1978, the 44th Amendment sought to undo some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment, restoring certain judicial powers and civil liberties that were curtailed during the Emergency.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The 44th Amendment was aimed at restoring and strengthening judicial review rather than overcoming judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. Thus, this option does not apply.
Option (d): 86th Amendment
- What is the 86th Amendment?
  Enacted in 2002, the 86th Amendment introduced Article 21A, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This amendment primarily focuses on the right to education and does not address issues related to overcoming judicial interpretations of the existing Fundamental Rights. Therefore, this option is not relevant.

18. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
a. The National Commission for Backward Classes

b. The National Human Rights Commission

c. The National Law Commission

d. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) Only one
The National Commission for Backward Classes is the only recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned. The other three organizations have different statutory or quasi-constitutional statuses, thus not fitting the definition of constitutional bodies.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

19. Consider the following statements:
a. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
b. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
c. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) None
None of the statements are entirely accurate. Statement (a) misinterprets the implications of a void election, statement (b) misrepresents the grounds for postponing a presidential election, and statement (c) incorrectly implies rigid time limits for the President’s assent.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that only one of the statements is correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (a) is inaccurate. If the election of the President is declared void by the Supreme Court, it does not invalidate all acts done by the President prior to that decision. The acts performed while in office remain valid to ensure continuity in governance.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that two of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (b) is misleading. While elections can be postponed under certain circumstances, the dissolution of Legislative Assemblies does not automatically justify postponing the presidential election, as the timing is typically governed by the Election Commission. Therefore, this option cannot be correct either.
Option (c): All three
- What does this option imply?
  This option states that all three statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Given the inaccuracies in both statements (a) and (b), it follows that this option is also incorrect. Only statement (c) may be true, but since the other two are not, this option cannot be correct.
Option (d): None
- What does this option imply?
  This option asserts that none of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option correct?
  Statement (c) is also misleading. While the Constitution does mention a time limit for the President's assent, it does not prescribe strict time frames for every bill. The President has a discretion that allows for flexibility, which complicates the assertion made in this statement. Therefore, since all statements contain inaccuracies, this option is valid.

20. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
a. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
b. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
c. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) Only one
Only statement (a) is correct regarding the notification of Scheduled Areas being through an order of the President. Statement (b) inaccurately describes the administrative units, and statement (c) is also misleading since it is not mandatory for Chief Ministers to submit annual reports, even though they may do so.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that only one of the statements is correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (a) is true. The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area indeed requires an order from the President of India under the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. Therefore, saying that only one statement is correct does not hold since at least one other statement might also be true.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that two of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (b) is incorrect. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area can vary; however, it is not strictly limited to a district. Scheduled Areas can include larger units than districts, such as entire states, depending on the context, and the lowest unit is not explicitly defined as a cluster of villages in the Block. Therefore, this option cannot be correct.
Option (c): All three
- What does this option imply?
  This option states that all three statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Given that statement (b) is not correct, this option is also incorrect. If even one statement is inaccurate, then it negates the validity of this option.
Option (d): None
- What does this option imply?
  This option asserts that none of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (a) is indeed correct, as mentioned above. Therefore, this option is also incorrect.

21. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I accurately reflects the relationship between Articles 16(4) and 335 concerning reservation policies and administrative efficiency, while Statement-II is incorrect in its assertion about the definition of "efficiency of administration" under Article 335.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that both statements are correct and that Statement-II explains why Statement-I is true.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is not accurate because Article 335 does not define "efficiency of administration." Instead, it mentions that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes must be taken into account in making appointments to services and posts, and it emphasizes the need to maintain the efficiency of administration. Thus, this option cannot be correct.
Option (b): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that both statements are true, but Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for Statement-I.
- Why is this option correct?
  Statement-I is indeed correct in that the Supreme Court has held that reservation policies are subject to the maintenance of administrative efficiency as stipulated in Article 335. However, Statement-II is incorrect in its assertion that Article 335 defines "efficiency of administration." Therefore, while both statements are correct in context, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I, making this option valid.
Option (c): Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that Statement-I is true while Statement-II is false.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Although Statement-I is indeed correct and Statement-II is incorrect, the implication of the correct and incorrect nature of the statements does not fully encompass the relationship established in the context. While this option holds a partial truth, it does not capture the specific relationship required by the question.
Option (d): Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that Statement-I is false while Statement-II is true.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is incorrect because Statement-I is indeed correct, as previously established. Therefore, the assertion that Statement-I is incorrect cannot be true.

22. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :
a. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
b. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
c. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Statements (b) and (c) are correct, as they accurately describe the role and formation of Home Guards, whereas Statement (a) inaccurately states the nature of their establishment under the Home Guards Act.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that only one of the statements is correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (b) is correct as Home Guards serve as an auxiliary to the police. Statement (c) is also accurate as the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been established to address issues along international borders and coastal areas. Therefore, saying that only one statement is correct does not reflect the accuracy of the other statements.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that two of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (a) is incorrect. While Home Guards are indeed established to aid police forces, they are not raised directly under a specific Home Guards Act by the Central Government. Instead, the establishment of Home Guards is generally managed by individual state governments, based on guidelines issued by the Central Government. Thus, this option cannot be correct, as all statements cannot be satisfied.
Option (c): All three
- What does this option imply?
  This option states that all three statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement (a) is not accurate regarding the establishment process for Home Guards, as it is not solely under the Central Government’s direct authority. This makes this option incorrect.
Option (d): None
- What does this option imply?
  This option asserts that none of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Since statements (b) and (c) are indeed correct, claiming that none of the statements is valid is inaccurate.

23.

1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms	The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading of otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties	The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others	The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

24. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement-I : One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
This option accurately reflects the correctness of both statements while acknowledging that Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Synopsis:

Option (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that both statements are true and that Statement-II provides the rationale for Statement-I.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While both statements are correct, Statement-I’s specific size (600 mm × 400 mm) is not explained by the ratio mentioned in Statement-II. Therefore, this option does not hold.
Option (b): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- What does this option imply?
  This option posits that both statements are true, but the ratio in Statement-II does not directly clarify the size in Statement-I.
- Why is this option correct?
  Both statements are accurate: Statement-I refers to one of the standard sizes of the flag, and Statement-II accurately states the ratio of length to height of the flag as 3:2. However, the specific size does not correlate to the ratio, thus validating this option.
Option (c): Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that Statement-I is true while Statement-II is false.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement-II is indeed correct; the length to height ratio of the National Flag of India is specified as 3:2, thus this option cannot be true.
Option (d): Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Since Statement-I is correct about the size (600 mm × 400 mm is indeed one of the standard sizes), this option cannot be valid.

25. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
This option accurately reflects the truth of both statements while recognizing that Statement-II does not serve as an explanation for the celebration of Constitution Day.

Synopsis:

Option (a): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- What does this option imply?
  This option states that both statements are true and that Statement-II directly supports Statement-I.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I since the Drafting Committee was established to prepare the Constitution, which is separate from the celebration of Constitution Day. Therefore, this option cannot be correct.
Option (b): Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims both statements are accurate, but Statement-II does not justify the celebration of Constitution Day.
- Why is this option correct?
  Statement-I is true; Constitution Day is indeed celebrated on 26th November to promote constitutional values. Statement-II is also true; the Drafting Committee was set up on that date in 1949. However, the formation of the Drafting Committee does not explain why Constitution Day is celebrated, making this option the correct choice.
Option (c): Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that Statement-I is true while Statement-II is false.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Statement-II is correct; it accurately reflects the historical event regarding the establishment of the Drafting Committee. Thus, this option cannot be valid.
Option (d): Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Since Statement-I is indeed correct, this option is not valid.

26. Consider the following statements :
a. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
b. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
c. According the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statement are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Correct Answer: (c) All three
This option accurately reflects the correctness of all three statements regarding the duties of the Central Government and the rights of individuals under preventive detention and the Prevention of Terrorism Act.

Synopsis:

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that only one of the three statements is correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  A detailed analysis of each statement reveals that more than one statement is correct. Therefore, this option cannot be valid.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option states that two of the three statements are accurate.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  In examining the statements, all three statements contain elements of truth based on legal provisions, making this option invalid as it does not account for the correctness of all three statements.
Option (c): All three
- What does this option imply?
  This option asserts that all three statements are correct.
- Why is this option correct?
  - Statement a: The Constitution, under Article 356, does establish the Central Government’s duty to protect states from internal disturbances.
  - Statement b: Article 22(1) of the Constitution states that every person shall be entitled to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice. However, under preventive detention laws, this right is limited, making this statement true.
  - Statement c: The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 (POTA), indeed has provisions that confessions made to police officers are not admissible as evidence, which upholds the rights of the accused.
    Therefore, this option accurately reflects the truth of all three statements.
Option (d): None
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that none of the statements are correct.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Since two of the statements are indeed correct and one is valid based on the Constitution and the Prevention of Terrorism Act, this option is not valid.

27. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
a. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
b. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
c. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
d. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

Economy Prelims Analysis 2023

28. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Answer

29. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

30. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of sterilization?
(a) Conducting Open Market Operations
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
(d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions

Answer

31. Consider the following markets:
a. Government Bond Market
b. Call Money Market
c. Treasury Bill Market
d. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

32. Consider the investments in the following assets:
a. Brand recognition
b. Inventory
c. Intellectual property
d. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

33. Consider the following:
a. Demographic performance
b. Forest and ecology
c. Governance reforms
d. Stable government
3. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Answer

34. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
a. Affordable housing
b. Mass rapid transport
c. Health care
d. Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

35. Consider, the following statements :
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

36. Consider the following statements :
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that :
a. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
b. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
c. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

37. Consider the following statements with reference to India :
1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

38. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

39. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Answer

40. Consider the following statements:

a. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.

b. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.

c. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

Environment Prelims Analysis 2023

41. Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

42. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

43. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer

44. Consider the following fauna:
a. Lion-tailed Macaque
b. Malabar Civet
c. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

45. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps

Answer

46. Consider the following statements:
a. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
b. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
c. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
d. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

47. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
a. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
b. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
c. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

48. Consider the following statements:
a. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
b. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
c. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

49. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer

50. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch

Answer

51. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

52. Consider the following heavy industries:
a. Fertilizer plants
b. Oil refineries
c. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

53. Consider the following activities :
a. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
b. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
c. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

54. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements :
a. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
b. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
c. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

55. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :
a. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
b. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
c. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

56. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements :
a. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
b. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
c. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

57. Consider the following statements :
a. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
b. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Geography & Mapping Prelims Analysis 2023

58. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

59. Consider the following statements:
a. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
b. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
c. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

60. Consider the following pairs:

Port	Well Known For
1. Kamarajar Port	First port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port	Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam	Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Answer

61. Consider the following trees:
a. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
b. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
c. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

62. Consider the following statements:
a. India has more arable area than China.
b. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
c. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

63. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium

Answer

64. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan

Answer

65. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda

Answer

66. Consider the following statements:
a. Amarkantak Hills are at confluence of Vindhya and the Sahyadri Ranges
b. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
c. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

67. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements :
a. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
b. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
c. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

68. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Answer

69. Consider the following statements:
a. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
b. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
c. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

70. Consider the following pairs:

Area of conflict mentioned in News	Country where it is located
1. Donbas	Syria
2. Kachin	Ethiopia
3. Tigray	North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

71. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught international attention for which one of the following reasons is common to all of them?
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

Answer

72. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

73. Consider the following countries :
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Answer

74. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Answer

75. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

76. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

77. Consider the following statements:
a. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
b. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

78. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :
a. None of them uses seawater.
b. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
c. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

79. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’. India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

Science & Tech Prelims Analysis 2023

80. Consider the following:
a. Aerosols
b. Foam agents
c. Fire retardants
d. Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer

81. Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass

Answer

82. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-bome devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Answer

83. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population”

Answer

84. Consider the following statements :
a. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
b. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

85. Consider the following actions :
1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
3. Detection of the tit of smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
In how many of the above action is the function of accelerometer required?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

86. Consider the following pairs :

Objects in space	Description
1. Cepheids	Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae	Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars	Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

87. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan

Answer

88. Consider the following statements :
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights,
while cruise missiles are rocketpowered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a
solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

International Relations Prelims Analysis 2023

89. Consider the following statements about G-20:

a. The G-20 group was originally established as platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.

b. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

90. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

91. Consider the following pairs :

Regions often mentioned in news	Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri	War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh	Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia	Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

92. Consider the following statements:

a. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM).

b. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.

c. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer

93. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council”.

Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

94. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades old civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

a) Angola

b) Costa Rica

c) Ecuador

d) Somalia

Answer

Government Schemes Prelims Analysis 2023

95. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) All four

Answer

96. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat:

It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) All four

Answer

Miscellaneous Prelims Analysis 2023

97. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II : Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

98. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:

It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) All four

Answer

99. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award	For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
2. Arjuna Award	For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award	To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar	To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of above pairs are correctly matched?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) All four

Answer

100. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer

UPSC Prelims Analysis 2023 GS Paper I

Ancient History Prelims Analysis 2023

Medieval History Prelims Analysis 2023

Modern History Prelims Analysis 2023

Polity Prelims Analysis 2023

Economy Prelims Analysis 2023

Environment Prelims Analysis 2023

Geography & Mapping Prelims Analysis 2023

Science & Tech Prelims Analysis 2023

International Relations Prelims Analysis 2023

Government Schemes Prelims Analysis 2023

Miscellaneous Prelims Analysis 2023

Indian Missile System

Mindset Behind IAS Akash S.’s 204 UPSC Interview Score in 2019

Cooperative Society (Introduction, Roles, Types, Examples)

Pressure Groups (Types, Features, Examples)

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