UPSC Prelims Analysis 2024 GS Paper I

Topic Wise UPSC Prelims Questions
Ancient History	Medieval History	Modern History
Polity	Economy	Environment
Geography	Science & Tech	International relations
Government Schemes	Miscellaneous

Ancient History & Art and Culture Prelims Analysis 2024

1. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(d) Mahabhashya

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) Andhra
Dhanyakataka was located in the Andhra region, and it became a prominent centre for the Mahasanghikas, contributing to Buddhist teachings and culture.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Andhra
- What is Andhra?
  Andhra is a historical region in South India, roughly corresponding to the modern-day state of Andhra Pradesh. It has a rich history of Buddhist activity, especially in the early centuries of the Common Era. Dhanyakataka, also known as Amaravati, was located in this region and became a flourishing centre for Buddhist art and learning.
- Why is it correct?
  Dhanyakataka was indeed located in Andhra. It served as an important hub for Mahasanghika Buddhism, which was one of the early schools of Buddhism. The region of Andhra, particularly Dhanyakataka, was known for its role in the spread of Mahayana Buddhism as well.
Option (b): Gandhara
- What is Gandhara?
  Gandhara was an ancient region located in modern-day Pakistan and Afghanistan. It was famous for its Greco-Buddhist art and was a key centre for Mahayana Buddhism, especially during the Kushan Empire.
- Why is it incorrect?
  Although Gandhara was a significant Buddhist centre, Dhanyakataka was not located here. Gandhara is associated more with Mahayana and the Gandhara art style, while Dhanyakataka is linked to the Mahasanghikas in Andhra.
Option (c): Kalinga
- What is Kalinga?
  Kalinga corresponds to the present-day coastal regions of Odisha and parts of Andhra Pradesh. It was historically significant, particularly after Emperor Ashoka's conquest of the region, which led him to embrace Buddhism.
- Why is it incorrect?
  Although Kalinga had a connection with Buddhism, Dhanyakataka was not located here. The Buddhist influence in Kalinga arose primarily after the Kalinga War, but it is not the location associated with the Mahasanghikas.
Option (d): Magadha
- What is Magadha?
  Magadha was a powerful ancient kingdom located in modern-day Bihar, India. It was one of the most important regions for the early development of Buddhism and Jainism. Cities like Bodh Gaya and Nalanda are located here.
- Why is it incorrect?
  Despite Magadha's profound historical connection to Buddhism, Dhanyakataka was not located in this region. Magadha was a centre for early Buddhism, but the Mahasanghika tradition was more prominent in regions like Andhra, specifically in Dhanyakataka.

2. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(d) Lalitavistara

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Statements (b) and (c) are correct, while statement (a) is inaccurate because the concept of the stupa is not originally Buddhist.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Statement (a): The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin
- What is the concept of the Stupa?
  The stupa is a dome-shaped structure that serves as a place of meditation and a shrine for relics, especially in Buddhist tradition.
- Why is this statement partially correct?
  While stupas became prominent in Buddhist tradition, the idea of erecting mounds for burial or commemorative purposes predates Buddhism. Pre-Buddhist cultures in India also used burial mounds, but Buddhism gave the stupa its specific religious significance. Therefore, though Buddhism popularized the stupa as a sacred structure, its concept was not originally Buddhist.
- Conclusion: Incorrect (since the origin predates Buddhism).
Statement (b): Stupa was generally a repository of relics
- What is a stupa's role as a relic repository?
  A stupa often housed relics, such as the remains of the Buddha or other revered figures. These relics served as objects of veneration and made the stupa a focal point for devotion.
- Why is this statement correct?
  Most stupas, especially in early Buddhist history, were built to enshrine relics. For example, the famous Sanchi Stupa enshrined relics of the Buddha. Thus, this role as a repository is an accurate description of stupas.
- Conclusion: Correct.
Statement (c): Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition
- What is meant by votive and commemorative structure?
  A votive structure is one that is created as an offering or expression of gratitude, while a commemorative structure is built to honor a person or event.
- Why is this statement correct?
  In Buddhist tradition, stupas were erected as both votive structures (to gain merit or express devotion) and commemorative structures (in honor of the Buddha or important Buddhist events). They were central to the religious practice of pilgrimage and meditation.
- Conclusion: Correct

3. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan

2. Rani-ki-Vav

3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) ports
Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known ancient ports in South India that played a crucial role in maritime trade and the cultural exchange between India and other parts of the world.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): capital cities
- What are capital cities?
  Capital cities are the administrative or political centers of a region or kingdom, often serving as the seat of the ruler's court and government. In ancient South India, notable capital cities included Madurai for the Pandyas, Kanchipuram for the Pallavas, and Thanjavur for the Cholas.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri (also known as Muziris) were prominent locations in ancient South India, they were not capital cities. These places were primarily known for their significance in trade and commerce rather than administrative or political functions.
Option (b): ports
- What are ports?
  Ports are coastal locations where ships dock to load and unload goods and passengers. In ancient South India, several ports were established due to the region's strategic location along the Indian Ocean trade routes, enabling trade with the Roman Empire, Southeast Asia, and other parts of the world.
- Why is this option correct?
  Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were all prominent port towns in ancient South India:
  - Korkai was an ancient port city of the Pandyan kingdom, known for its pearl fishing and trade.
  - Poompuhar (also called Kaveripattinam) served as a major Chola port city and played a significant role in maritime trade.
  - Muchiri (Muziris) was an important port in Kerala, noted in Greek and Roman texts for its trade in spices, gemstones, and other luxury goods.
    These ports facilitated extensive overseas trade and cultural exchanges, making them critical to the economy and external relations of South Indian kingdoms.
Option (c): centers of iron-and-steel making
- What are centers of iron-and-steel making?
  These are places where iron and steel were produced and processed. Ancient South India had some regions known for metalworking, particularly in high-quality iron and steel production (e.g., Chera and Pandya regions).
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Although South India was known for its advanced metallurgy, especially the production of wootz steel, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were not primarily known as centers for iron-and-steel making. Their fame was largely due to their roles as bustling ports.
Option (d): shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
- What are shrines of Jain Tirthankaras?
  Jain shrines are temples dedicated to Tirthankaras, who are revered spiritual teachers in Jainism. These shrines are scattered across India and are known for their architectural beauty and religious importance.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were not prominent Jain religious centers or known for shrines dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras. Their historical significance lies in trade and commerce rather than as centers of Jain worship.

4. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta

2. Shakyamuni

3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only.

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
The term Vattakirutal, as mentioned in Sangam literature, refers to a king committing ritual suicide by starving himself after being defeated in battle, reflecting the cultural values of honor and sacrifice during the Sangam era.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Kings employing women bodyguards
- What does this option describe?
  This describes a practice where women are employed as royal bodyguards to protect the king. Such practices, although not common, are noted in various ancient and medieval traditions across different cultures.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The practice of Vattakirutal in Sangam literature does not refer to the employment of women bodyguards. Sangam poems do not highlight this concept, making this option unrelated to the context of Vattakirutal.
Option (b): Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
- What does this option describe?
  This option refers to assemblies where scholars, poets, and religious figures gather in royal courts to engage in intellectual discussions. Such gatherings were common in many ancient and medieval societies, including the Sangam period.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Vattakirutal does not relate to scholarly or philosophical assemblies. It is not a term used in Sangam literature to denote gatherings of learned persons in royal courts, which makes this option incorrect.
Option (c): Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
- What does this option describe?
  This describes a practice in which young girls would guard crops, keeping animals and birds away to protect the yield. While such practices were common in agrarian societies, especially in South India, it is not connected to Vattakirutal.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Although Sangam literature mentions agricultural activities and roles of women, Vattakirutal is not associated with guarding fields. Thus, this option is not the correct explanation.
Option (d): A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
- What does this option describe?
  This describes a practice where a king, after facing defeat in battle, chooses to end his life by fasting to death. This form of ritual suicide was seen as a means for a defeated king to preserve his honor and dignity, even in the face of failure.
- Why is this option correct?
  Vattakirutal is a term found in Sangam literature that specifically refers to the practice of a defeated king committing ritual suicide by starvation. It was considered an honorable way for a king to atone for his failure and avoid the humiliation of defeat. The term directly corresponds to this practice, making it the correct answer.

5. Consider the following information:

	Archaeological Site	State	Description
1.	Chandraketugarh	Odisha	Trading Port town
2.	Inamgaon	Maharashtra	Chalcolithic site
3.	Mangadu	Kerala	Megalithic site
4.	Salihundam	Andhra Pradesh	Rock-cut cave shrines

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) None
None of the given dynasties—Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, or Yadava—established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD. All these dynasties rose to prominence later, starting from the 10th century AD onwards.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- Analysis of each dynasty:
  - Hoysala: The Hoysalas established their rule in the 10th century AD in the Karnataka region. They rose to prominence much later than the early eighth century.
  - Gahadavala: The Gahadavala dynasty rose to prominence in the late 11th century AD in the present-day Uttar Pradesh region. They were not active in the early eighth century.
  - Kakatiya: The Kakatiya dynasty began as a feudatory of the Chalukyas in the 10th century AD and established their independent kingdom in the 12th century AD. They did not establish their kingdom in the early eighth century.
  - Yadava: The Yadava dynasty established its independent rule around the 12th century AD in the Maharashtra region. They, too, were not active in the early eighth century.
- Why this option is incorrect?
  None of the dynasties listed were established in the early eighth century, so selecting "Only one" as the answer is incorrect.
Option (b): Only two
- Analysis of each dynasty:
  Since all four dynasties emerged much later than the early eighth century, choosing this option would also be inaccurate.
- Why this option is incorrect?
  There is no combination of two dynasties from the list that fits the criteria of being established in the early eighth century.
Option (c): Only three
- Analysis of each dynasty:
  Similar to the previous options, no three dynasties from the given list were established in the early eighth century.
- Why this option is incorrect?
  Since all four dynasties rose to prominence later, this option is also incorrect.
Option (d): None
- Why this option is correct?
  None of the dynasties listed (Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, and Yadava) established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD. All of them emerged as significant powers much later, in the 10th to 12th centuries AD.

6. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(d) Kumbh mela

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Only pairs (b) and (d) are correctly matched. Hammira-Mahakavya was authored by Nayachandra Suri, and Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri. The other pairs are incorrect, as Devichandragupta was written by Vishakhadatta, and Milinda-panha is attributed to an unknown author.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Pair (a): Devichandragupta – Bilhana
- What is Devichandragupta?
  Devichandragupta is a historical drama that narrates the story of Chandragupta II’s rise to power by overthrowing his elder brother, Ramagupta.
- Who is Bilhana?
  Bilhana was a famous Sanskrit poet known for his work Vikramankadeva Charita, which glorifies the Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI.
- Why is this pair incorrect?
  Devichandragupta is attributed to Vishakhadatta, not Bilhana. Thus, this pair is not correctly matched.
Pair (b): Hammira-Mahakavya – Nayachandra Suri
- What is Hammira-Mahakavya?
  Hammira-Mahakavya is a poetic work that details the life of Hammira, a ruler of the Chauhan dynasty.
- Who is Nayachandra Suri?
  Nayachandra Suri was a Jain scholar and poet who authored Hammira-Mahakavya to celebrate the valor and defeat of the Chauhan king Hammira against Alauddin Khilji.
- Why is this pair correct?
  This pair is correctly matched because Hammira-Mahakavya was indeed written by Nayachandra Suri.
Pair (c): Milinda-panha – Nagarjuna
- What is Milinda-panha?
  Milinda-panha (The Questions of King Milinda) is a Pali text that records the dialogues between Indo-Greek King Menander (Milinda) and the Buddhist sage Nagasena.
- Who is Nagarjuna?
  Nagarjuna was a renowned Buddhist philosopher and founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism.
- Why is this pair incorrect?
  Milinda-panha is not authored by Nagarjuna but by an unknown author, who compiled the dialogues between King Milinda and Nagasena. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.
Pair (d): Nitivakyamrita – Somadeva Suri
- What is Nitivakyamrita?
  Nitivakyamrita is a Sanskrit work on polity and ethics that offers guidance on statecraft and governance.
- Who is Somadeva Suri?
  Somadeva Suri was a Jain scholar and poet known for his works like Nitivakyamrita and Yashastilaka.
- Why is this pair correct?
  This pair is correctly matched because Somadeva Suri is indeed the author of Nitivakyamrita.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.

2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) Jainism
The statement reflects the core belief of Jainism, which holds that souls exist not only in living beings but also in inanimate objects like rocks, water, and other natural elements. This perspective is central to the Jain principle of ahimsa (non-violence) and is unique to Jain philosophical thought.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Buddhism
- What is Buddhism’s view on souls and life?
  Buddhism, founded by Siddhartha Gautama (the Buddha), does not believe in a permanent or eternal soul (anatman). Instead, it emphasizes the concept of anatta (no-self) and the transience of all beings. While Buddhism shows respect for all life forms, it does not attribute souls to inanimate objects like rocks and water.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The statement in the question refers to the belief that inanimate objects have souls, which contradicts the Buddhist understanding. Therefore, this option does not reflect the belief stated.
Option (b): Jainism
- What is Jainism’s view on souls?
  Jainism, founded by Mahavira, teaches that jiva (soul) is present not only in animals and plants but also in inanimate objects such as rocks, water, fire, and air. This belief is part of Jainism’s concept of ajiva (non-living matter) being intertwined with jiva (living soul). Jains categorize these non-living entities as possessing a subtle form of life or consciousness. Thus, they practice extreme non-violence (ahimsa) towards all forms of existence, animate or inanimate.
- Why is this option correct?
  The statement in the question directly aligns with the Jain doctrine that souls are present not only in living beings but also in non-living things like rocks, water, and other natural elements. This makes Jainism the correct answer.
Option (c): Shaivism
- What is Shaivism’s view on souls and life?
  Shaivism, a sect of Hinduism, worships Lord Shiva as the Supreme Being. While it acknowledges the presence of the divine in all beings and the universe, it does not hold the belief that inanimate objects like rocks and water possess individual souls. Shaivism focuses more on the union of the individual soul (atman) with the universal soul (Brahman).
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The idea of attributing souls to inanimate objects is not a core belief of Shaivism, making this option incorrect in the context of the question.
Option (d): Vaishnavism
- What is Vaishnavism’s view on souls and life?
  Vaishnavism, another sect of Hinduism, worships Vishnu as the Supreme Being. Similar to Shaivism, it emphasizes devotion (bhakti) to the deity and the soul’s journey towards moksha (liberation). Vaishnavism does not ascribe souls to non-living entities like rocks or water, focusing instead on the soul’s relationship with Vishnu.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Vaishnavism does not share the belief in the presence of souls in inanimate objects as described in the question. Therefore, it does not fit the description provided.

Medieval History Prelims Analysis 2024

8. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Answer

Correct Answer: (d) None
None of the dynasties—Hoysala, Gahadavala, Kakatiya, or Yadava—established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD. Each of these dynasties rose to prominence in later centuries, primarily in the 11th to 13th centuries.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Dynasty (a): Hoysala
- What is the Hoysala dynasty?
  The Hoysala dynasty was a prominent South Indian dynasty known for its contributions to architecture, art, and culture, particularly in the region of Karnataka. They rose to power in the 10th century and reached their zenith in the 12th century.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The Hoysala dynasty did not establish its kingdom in the early eighth century AD; they became significant later. Therefore, this dynasty does not meet the criteria set by the question.
Dynasty (b): Gahadavala
- What is the Gahadavala dynasty?
  The Gahadavala dynasty was a medieval dynasty that ruled over parts of northern India, particularly in the region of present-day Uttar Pradesh. They are known for their patronage of art and culture and were prominent in the 11th and 12th centuries.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The Gahadavala dynasty emerged later, around the 11th century, and did not establish their kingdom in the early eighth century AD. Thus, this option is also incorrect.
Dynasty (c): Kakatiya
- What is the Kakatiya dynasty?
  The Kakatiya dynasty was a South Indian dynasty known for their rule over the region of present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. They became prominent in the 12th century, although some evidence suggests early formations in the late 9th century.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While the Kakatiyas have ancient roots, they did not establish their kingdom until later, primarily in the 12th century. Therefore, this dynasty does not fit the criteria set by the question.
Dynasty (d): Yadava
- What is the Yadava dynasty?
  The Yadava dynasty ruled over parts of western India, mainly Maharashtra, during the medieval period. They are notable for their capital at Devagiri (modern Daulatabad) and gained prominence in the 12th and 13th centuries.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the other dynasties, the Yadava dynasty did not establish its kingdom in the early eighth century AD. Their significant rise occurred later, making this option incorrect as well.

Modern History Prelims Analysis 2024

9. Consider the following pairs:

Party Its Leader

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari

3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram

4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

Correct Answer: (c) Bahadur Shah
Bahadur Shah of the Gujarat Sultanate surrendered Diu to the Portuguese in 1535. His capitulation was a pivotal moment in the establishment of Portuguese power in the region, illustrating the complexities of colonial interactions during that period.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Ahmad Shah
- Who was Ahmad Shah?
  Ahmad Shah I was the ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate from 1411 to 1442 AD. He is known for his administrative reforms and for founding the city of Ahmedabad, but he did not face the Portuguese threat during his reign.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Ahmad Shah was not involved in the surrender of Diu to the Portuguese, as this event occurred much later in the timeline of Gujarat’s history. Therefore, this option is not correct.
Option (b): Mahmud Begarha
- Who was Mahmud Begarha?
  Mahmud Begarha was a notable ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate who reigned from 1458 to 1511 AD. He is known for his military campaigns and for strengthening the Sultanate, but he was ultimately unable to prevent the Portuguese expansion.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While Mahmud Begarha resisted Portuguese influence during his reign, he did not surrender Diu. In fact, he took significant measures against the Portuguese. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (c): Bahadur Shah
- Who was Bahadur Shah?
  Bahadur Shah was the Sultan of Gujarat who ruled from 1526 to 1537 AD. He faced challenges from the Portuguese, who sought to establish control over trade routes. In 1535, he was pressured into surrendering Diu to the Portuguese in a deal that included the recognition of his rule.
- Why is this option correct?
  Bahadur Shah's surrender of Diu to the Portuguese is a well-documented event in history, making this option the correct answer.
Option (d): Muhammad Shah
- Who was Muhammad Shah?
  Muhammad Shah was the ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate who reigned from 1537 to 1543 AD. His reign came after Bahadur Shah, and he faced further issues with the Portuguese but was not the ruler who surrendered Diu.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Muhammad Shah did not surrender Diu; this event had already occurred under Bahadur Shah. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

10. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.

2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only.

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) archaeological excavations
Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were all associated with archaeological excavations in India, contributing significantly to the understanding of Indian history and culture through their studies and discoveries.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): archaeological excavations
- What are archaeological excavations?
  Archaeological excavations involve the systematic uncovering of artifacts, structures, and other physical remains from past cultures. This practice is essential for understanding historical civilizations and their contributions.
- Why is this option correct?
  Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were all prominent figures in the field of archaeology in India. They contributed to significant excavations and studies, particularly in places like the ancient city of Madurai and the archaeological remains at various historical sites. Therefore, this option is correct.
Option (b): establishment of English Press in Colonial India
- What was the English Press in Colonial India?
  The English Press refers to the print media established during the colonial period, which played a crucial role in disseminating information, literature, and political discourse.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The individuals mentioned were not known for their contributions to the English Press; rather, their focus was primarily on archaeological studies. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (c): establishment of Churches in Princely States
- What does establishment of Churches in Princely States mean?
  This refers to the construction and establishment of Christian churches and missions within the various princely states of India during the colonial era, often associated with missionary work.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The figures listed were not directly involved in establishing churches; their contributions were mainly archaeological rather than religious or missionary. Thus, this option is also incorrect.
Option (d): construction of railways in Colonial India
- What is the significance of railways in Colonial India?
  Railways played a significant role in connecting various parts of India, facilitating trade, and enhancing colonial administration.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The individuals mentioned did not contribute to railway construction; that was primarily the work of engineers and government officials focused on infrastructure development. Hence, this option is incorrect as well.

Polity Prelims Analysis 2024

11. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) The procedure established by law
"Due Process of Law" fundamentally means that legal proceedings must follow established laws and procedures, ensuring fair treatment under the law for all individuals.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): The principle of natural justice
- What is the principle of natural justice?
  This principle refers to the legal philosophy that emphasizes fairness in legal proceedings. It includes two main components: the right to a fair hearing (audi alteram partem) and the rule against bias (nemo judex in causa sua).
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While natural justice is related to fairness in legal processes, "Due Process of Law" encompasses a broader framework that includes the procedures and rights guaranteed by law, making this option not entirely correct.
Option (b): The procedure established by law
- What does the procedure established by law mean?
  This phrase signifies that laws must be followed in legal proceedings, ensuring that individuals are treated according to established legal rules. It emphasizes that legal processes must adhere to formal laws rather than arbitrary actions.
- Why is this option correct?
  "Due Process of Law" fundamentally means that the law must be followed in a fair and consistent manner. It ensures that individuals receive a legal process that is grounded in law, thus making this option the correct answer.
Option (c): Fair application of law
- What does fair application of law refer to?
  This phrase suggests that laws should be applied impartially and without bias to all individuals. It implies justice and equity in the enforcement of laws.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While fair application is a component of due process, "Due Process of Law" encompasses more than just fairness in application; it includes procedural safeguards and rights established by law, making this option not wholly accurate.
Option (d): Equality before law
- What does equality before law mean?
  This principle states that every individual, regardless of status, is subject to the same laws and will receive the same legal protections and consequences.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Equality before the law is a significant legal principle but does not encompass the full scope of "Due Process of Law," which includes procedural aspects as well. Therefore, this option does not adequately define due process.

12. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani

2. Manipuri

3. Nepali

4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Correct Answer: (b) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment is widely believed to have been enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights, limiting the judiciary's role in reviewing legislative actions during the Emergency period.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): 1st Amendment
- What is the 1st Amendment?
  Enacted in 1951, the 1st Amendment was introduced to address various issues raised by the Supreme Court regarding the interpretation of Fundamental Rights, particularly concerning property rights and freedom of speech. It added restrictions to the rights under Article 19 and allowed for the imposition of reasonable restrictions by law.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While the 1st Amendment did modify certain aspects of Fundamental Rights, it was not as sweeping in scope as some of the later amendments and is not primarily regarded as a measure specifically aimed at overcoming judicial interpretations.
Option (b): 42nd Amendment
- What is the 42nd Amendment?
  Enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period, the 42nd Amendment is often called the "Mini Constitution." It made extensive changes to the Constitution, including altering the preamble, expanding the scope of Fundamental Duties, and limiting judicial review over certain amendments.
- Why is this option correct?
  The 42nd Amendment is widely viewed as an attempt to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights by introducing provisions that restricted the powers of the judiciary. It sought to minimize the courts' ability to interfere with legislative actions, particularly those related to Fundamental Rights.
Option (c): 44th Amendment
- What is the 44th Amendment?
  Enacted in 1978, the 44th Amendment sought to undo some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment, restoring certain judicial powers and civil liberties that were curtailed during the Emergency.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  The 44th Amendment was aimed at restoring and strengthening judicial review rather than overcoming judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. Thus, this option does not apply.
Option (d): 86th Amendment
- What is the 86th Amendment?
  Enacted in 2002, the 86th Amendment introduced Article 21A, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This amendment primarily focuses on the right to education and does not address issues related to overcoming judicial interpretations of the existing Fundamental Rights. Therefore, this option is not relevant.

13. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Correct Answer: (a) Only one
The National Commission for Backward Classes is the only recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned. The other three organizations have different statutory or quasi-constitutional statuses, thus not fitting the definition of constitutional bodies.

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

14. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

15. Under which of the following articles of the Constitution of India, has the supreme court of India placed the right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

16. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition

2. Variation

3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

17. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

18. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

19. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

20. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

21. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

22. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

	Army	Airforce	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant Commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

23. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1,3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

24. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.

3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

25. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

26. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition. –

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

27. Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

28. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.

2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.

3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

29. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

30. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer

Explanation (Synopsis):

Option (a): Only one
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that among the four organizations, only one is recognized as a constitutional body.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  This is not accurate because more than one of the listed bodies is recognized as a constitutional body under Indian law.
Option (b): Only two
- What does this option imply?
  This option suggests that out of the four organizations, only two are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  Similar to the previous option, this is not correct as there are more than two organizations in the list that qualify as constitutional bodies.
Option (c): Only three
- What does this option imply?
  This option indicates that three of the four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option incorrect?
  While it is true that three organizations might seem to be constitutional, there is actually only one recognized constitutional body among the four mentioned, making this option incorrect.
Option (d): All four
- What does this option imply?
  This option claims that all four organizations are constitutional bodies.
- Why is this option correct?
  Upon closer examination:
  - The National Commission for Backward Classes: Established under the 102nd Amendment to the Constitution in 2021, it is indeed a constitutional body.
  - The National Human Rights Commission: Established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, but it is often recognized as a quasi-constitutional body.
  - The National Law Commission: While established by an executive order and not directly mentioned in the Constitution, it plays an essential role in law reform and is often referred to in the context of constitutional provisions.
  - The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: Established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and is not a constitutional body.

Economy Prelims Analysis 2024

31. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II:

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

32. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(d) Stock market

Answer

33. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

34. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.

2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.

3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.

4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer

35. Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport

2. Kushinagar International Airport

3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

36. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Answer

37. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer

38. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies

2. Pension Funds

3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

39. Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

2. Motor vehicles

3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer

40. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Economic activity	Sector
1.	Storage of agricultural produce	Secondary
2.	Dairy farm	Primary
3.	Mineral exploration	Tertiary
4.	Weaving cloth	Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

41. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Items	Category
1.	Farmer’s plough	Working capital
2.	Computer	Fixed capital
3.	Yarn used by the weaver	Fixed capital
4.	Petrol	Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

42. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

43. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Environment Prelims Analysis 2024

44. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Answer

45. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

46. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(d) Reptiles

Answer

47. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Many chewing gums found in the market are considered pollution. a source of environmental

Statement-II:

Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

48. Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Animal found in its natural habitat
1.	Brazil	Indri
2.	Indonesia	Elk
3.	Madagascar	Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two.

(d) None

Answer

49. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.

2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.

3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer

50. Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.

2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.

3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

51. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.

(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Answer

52. Consider the following:

1. Battery storage

2. Biomass generators

3. Fuel cells

4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

53. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(d) Silk cotton

Answer

54. Consider the following:

1. Butterflies

2. Fish

3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer

55. Consider the following:

1. Cashew

2. Papaya

3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer

56. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.

2 PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

57. Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles

2. Centipedes

3. Flies

4. Termites

5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Answer

58. Consider the following planta:

1. Groundnut

2. Horse-gram

a. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer

59. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:

The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II:

The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

60. Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues

2. Corn grain

3. Wastewater treatment sludge

4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer

Geography & Mapping Prelims Analysis 2024

61. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Answer

62. Consider the following countries:

1. Italy

2. Japan

3. Nigeria

4. South Korea

5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 3 and 5 only

Answer

63. Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

64. Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.

2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

65. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

66. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

67. Consider the following:

1. Pyroclastic debris

2. Ash and dust

3. Nitrogen compounds

4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

68. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

69. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Answer

70. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a) Ghaghara-Gomati – Gandak – Kosi

(b) Gomati Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

(d) Gomati Ghaghara-Kosi- Gandak

Answer

71. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Answer

72. Consider the following countries:

1. Finland

2. Germany

3. Norway

4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

73. Consider the following information:

	Waterfall	Region	River
1.	Dhuandhar	Malwa	Narmada
2.	Hundru	Chota Nagpur	Subarnarekha
3.	Gersoppa	Western Ghats	Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two.

(d) None

Answer

74. Consider the following information:

	Region	Name of the mountain range	Type of mountain
1.	Central Asia	Vosges	Fold mountain
2.	Europe	Alps	Block mountain
3.	North America	Appalachians	Fold mountain
4.	South America	Andes	Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer

75. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.

2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

76. Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.

2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.

3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm-250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

Answer

77. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.

2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

78. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator

2. Tropic of Cancer

3. Tropic of Capricorn

4. Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 4

Answer

79. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Answer

80. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II:

Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

Science & Tech Prelims Analysis 2024

81. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(d) Virtual matrix

Answer

82. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectrie generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.

2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

83. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Answer

84. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

2. Monitoring of precipitation

3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer

85. Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael

2. MiG-29

3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer

86. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

87. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(d) Water vapour

Answer

88. Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Answer

89. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of:

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Answer

International Relations Prelims Analysis 2024

90. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023′ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).

3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.

4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

91. Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Reason for being in the news
1.	Argentina	Worst economic crisis
2.	Sudan	War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3.	Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Answer

92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II:

Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

93. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

94. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

Government Schemes Prelims Analysis 2024

95. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

96. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only.

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

97. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer

Miscellaneous Prelims Analysis 2024

98. Operations undertaken by the army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operation Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(d) Operation Madad

Answer

99. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Answer

100. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer

UPSC Prelims Analysis 2024 GS Paper I

Ancient History & Art and Culture Prelims Analysis 2024

Medieval History Prelims Analysis 2024

Modern History Prelims Analysis 2024

Polity Prelims Analysis 2024

Economy Prelims Analysis 2024

Environment Prelims Analysis 2024

Geography & Mapping Prelims Analysis 2024

Science & Tech Prelims Analysis 2024

International Relations Prelims Analysis 2024

Government Schemes Prelims Analysis 2024

Miscellaneous Prelims Analysis 2024

Indian Missile System

Mindset Behind IAS Akash S.’s 204 UPSC Interview Score in 2019

Cooperative Society (Introduction, Roles, Types, Examples)

Pressure Groups (Types, Features, Examples)

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